Class 12 · Biology · Chapter 9
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
The chapter explains how a gene is cut out of one organism, joined to a vector, put into a host and multiplied, and how the protein it codes for is produced in bulk. It is the technique chapter behind Chapter 10, and the board paper leans on it heavily: restriction enzymes, pBR322, gel electrophoresis, PCR and the bioreactor are asked almost every year, usually with a diagram.
Before you startWhat the board asks from this chapter
Class 12 Biology is a 70-mark theory paper. This chapter belongs to Unit IX, Biotechnology and its Applications, which carries 12 marks shared with Chapter 10. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes usually contributes 6 to 8 of those marks: two or three 1-mark items (MCQ or Assertion–Reason), a 2-mark, a 3-mark and very often the 5-mark question (PCR, pBR322 or the bioreactor with a diagram). A case-based question built on a pBR322 map or a PCR figure is also common.
| Question type | Marks | Usually asked |
|---|---|---|
| MCQ | 1 | The enzyme that breaks a fungal, plant or bacterial cell wall (chitinase, cellulase, lysozyme); which restriction site of pBR322 lies in which resistance gene (Sal I and BamH I in tetR, Pst I and Pvu I in ampR); how DNA is seen in a gel (ethidium bromide + UV); the source of the thermostable polymerase; how many base pairs Hind II recognises; what a plasmid is and is not; the direction DNA moves in a gel. |
| Assertion–Reason | 1 | Restriction enzymes and palindromes; DNA ligase joining sugar–phosphate backbones (not glycosidic bonds); DNA cannot cross the membrane because it is hydrophilic; alien DNA needs an ori to multiply; chitinase for yeast DNA; bioreactor conditions and the log phase; sticky ends helping ligase. |
| Very short answer | 2 | Roles of ori and a restriction site in pBR322; the palindrome EcoR I recognises and how it cuts; why a thermostable polymerase is used and its source; two ways of introducing DNA directly (micro-injection, biolistics); why cells must be made competent and how; what agarose is and where it comes from; exonuclease versus endonuclease. |
| Short answer | 3 | Naming of EcoR I with the recognition and cut site drawn; gel electrophoresis: principle, staining, elution; insertional inactivation in pBR322 and why β-galactosidase is a better marker; Agrobacterium and retroviruses as natural genetic engineers turned vectors; the sparged stirred-tank bioreactor; the steps of DNA isolation; ori, rop and the selectable markers. |
| Long answer | 5 | PCR with the roles of heat, primers and Taq polymerase (draw the three steps); the pBR322 map with rop, the markers and insertional inactivation; the complete flow of recombinant DNA technology from isolation to downstream processing; competent cells plus gel electrophoresis; the bioreactor diagram with its components and continuous culture. |
| Case-based | 4 | A pBR322 map with questions on where to insert an alien gene and how to select recombinants; a PCR figure with the steps and temperatures to identify; a gel photograph with lanes to interpret; a flow diagram of rDNA technology with blanks to fill. |
Hot topics, in order
- Restriction enzymes: naming of EcoR I, palindromic recognition sequence, sticky ends
- pBR322: ori, ampR, tetR, rop, the cloning sites and insertional inactivation
- PCR: denaturation, annealing, extension; primers; Thermus aquaticus polymerase
- Agarose gel electrophoresis: principle, ethidium bromide and UV, elution
- Competent host: calcium treatment and heat shock; micro-injection and biolistics
- Isolation of DNA: lysozyme, cellulase, chitinase, ribonuclease, protease, chilled ethanol
- Bioreactors: the sparged stirred-tank, its components and continuous culture
- Selectable markers, blue–white selection with β-galactosidase, Agrobacterium and retroviral vectors
The whole chapter, in orderNotes
01 Introduction and 9.1 Principles of Biotechnology PYQ 2026
NCERT starts by widening the word. Biotechnology, in the broad sense, is any use of living organisms or their enzymes to make products useful to us: making curd, bread, wine, even the biogas plant of the previous chapter. But the chapter is written about the narrow, modern meaning, and that is what the examiner tests. In the modern sense biotechnology means using genetically modified organisms or their products, and it covers in vitro fertilisation, gene synthesis, DNA vaccines, gene correction and similar work. The definition you should be able to quote is the one given by the European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB): biotechnology is the integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof and molecular analogues for products and services.
Two core techniques gave birth to modern biotechnology. The first is genetic engineering: techniques that alter the chemistry of the genetic material (DNA or RNA) so that it can be introduced into a host organism and change the host's phenotype. The second is the maintenance of a sterile, microbial-contamination-free ambience in chemical engineering processes, so that only the desired microbe or eukaryotic cell grows in large quantities and makes the product we want, whether an antibiotic, a vaccine or an enzyme.
Why not simply cross organisms to bring in a new trait? Traditional hybridisation moves the desired gene along with a large number of undesirable genes, because whole genomes are mixed. Genetic engineering lets us isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes. A piece of DNA put on its own into a cell cannot multiply, however; it is simply lost. It multiplies only when it becomes part of the host's chromosome, or when it is joined to a DNA that can replicate on its own, which means a DNA that carries an origin of replication (ori). Plasmids, the circular extra-chromosomal DNA of bacteria, replicate autonomously and so became the first carriers.
The first recombinant DNA was made in 1972 by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer. They cut a gene for antibiotic resistance out of a plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium with a restriction enzyme, joined it to a native plasmid using DNA ligase, and transferred the new circular DNA into Escherichia coli, where it replicated using the host's DNA polymerase. Making many copies of a template this way is cloning. The process has three basic steps, which the examiner will ask you to list: (i) identification of DNA with the desirable gene, (ii) introduction of that DNA into the host, and (iii) maintenance of the introduced DNA in the host and its transfer to the progeny.
02 9.2.1 Restriction Enzymes: discovery, naming, types and the palindrome PYQ 2026 · 2025 · 2024 · 2019
The key tools of recombinant DNA technology are restriction enzymes, polymerase enzymes, ligases, vectors and the host organism. The story of restriction enzymes begins in 1963, when two enzymes that restrict the growth of bacteriophage in E. coli were isolated. One added methyl groups to DNA (protecting the bacterium's own DNA), the other cut DNA. The cutting one was the restriction endonuclease. The first restriction endonuclease whose action depended on a specific DNA sequence, Hind II, was isolated and characterised five years later; it always cuts DNA at a particular point within a recognition sequence of six base pairs. Today more than 900 restriction enzymes have been isolated from over 230 strains of bacteria, each recognising a different sequence.
Naming convention (a favourite 3-mark question). Take EcoR I: E comes from the genus Escherichia, co from the species coli, R from the strain RY 13, and the Roman numeral I gives the order in which the enzyme was isolated from that strain. The first three letters are conventionally written in italics because they come from the organism's name.
Restriction enzymes belong to the larger class of nucleases. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of a DNA molecule; endonucleases cut at specific positions within the DNA. A restriction endonuclease works by 'inspecting' the length of a DNA molecule; once it finds its specific recognition sequence, it binds and cuts each of the two strands at specific points in their sugar–phosphate backbones. Each enzyme has its own recognition sequence, and that sequence is a palindrome.
A palindrome in language reads the same forwards and backwards ('MALAYALAM'). A palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that reads the same on the two strands when the orientation of reading is kept the same, that is, 5′→3′ on both. EcoR I recognises 5′-GAATTC-3′; the complementary strand read 5′→3′ is also GAATTC. Restriction enzymes cut a little away from the centre of the palindrome, between the same two bases on the opposite strands. EcoR I cuts between G and A on each strand, so each cut piece ends with a single-stranded overhang, AATT, called a sticky end. The ends are 'sticky' because they can form hydrogen bonds with a complementary sticky end, and this stickiness facilitates the action of DNA ligase. That is the whole reason the vector and the foreign DNA are cut with the same restriction enzyme: the two then carry matching sticky ends and can be joined end to end.
03 9.2.1 (continued) Separation and isolation of DNA fragments: gel electrophoresis PYQ 2026 · 2025 · 2024 · 2016
Cutting DNA with a restriction enzyme gives a mixture of fragments. To use them you must separate them, and the technique is gel electrophoresis. The principle rests on one fact: DNA fragments are negatively charged (because of the phosphate groups), so in an electric field they migrate towards the anode, the positive electrode. The migration is forced through a matrix, and the matrix most commonly used is agarose, a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds.
The agarose gel acts as a sieve. Fragments separate, or resolve, according to size through this sieving effect: the smaller the fragment, the farther it moves. So in a finished gel the smallest fragments are nearest the anode and the largest are nearest the wells. This is the sentence the marking scheme looks for when the question says 'state the basis on which fragments separate'.
The separated DNA is invisible. It is seen by staining the gel with ethidium bromide and then exposing it to UV radiation; the DNA appears as bright orange coloured bands. Pure DNA cannot be seen in visible light without staining, so a 1-mark question often reads 'DNA fragments in a gel can be visualised by' and the answer is ethidium bromide with UV light.
The band of interest is then cut out of the gel and the DNA is extracted from the gel piece. This step is called elution. The eluted, purified fragments are used to construct recombinant DNA by joining them to cloning vectors. A 5-mark question in recent papers asked for the whole sequence: principle, matrix, direction of movement, sieving, staining, visualisation and elution. Learn it as one paragraph and you can write it in any length the paper demands.
Two short points the examiner rewards. First, a lane loaded with a DNA of known fragment sizes (a marker or ladder) is run beside the samples so the size of an unknown band can be read off. Second, checking the progress of a restriction digestion is one of the everyday uses of agarose gel electrophoresis, which NCERT mentions again in section 9.3.2.
04 9.2.2 Cloning Vectors: ori, selectable marker and cloning sites; pBR322 PYQ 2026 · 2025 · 2024 · 2019 · 2015
Plasmids and bacteriophages replicate inside bacterial cells independently of the chromosomal DNA, and that autonomy makes them useful as vectors: if a foreign DNA is linked to such a molecule, it multiplies along with it. Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers in a cell; some plasmids have only one or two copies per cell while others have 15 to 100 copies, and some even more. Many copies of the vector means many copies of the linked DNA, which is what cloning is about.
A vector is engineered to carry three features, and NCERT names them in this order.
(i) Origin of replication (ori). The sequence from which replication starts; any piece of DNA linked to it can be made to replicate inside the host. The ori also controls the copy number of the linked DNA. So if you want many copies of the target DNA, clone it into a vector whose ori supports a high copy number.
(ii) Selectable marker. A gene that helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of transformants. (Transformation is the procedure by which a piece of DNA is introduced into a host bacterium.) Normal E. coli cells carry no antibiotic resistance, so genes for resistance to ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin are useful markers: a cell that grows on the antibiotic must carry the vector.
(iii) Cloning sites. To link the alien DNA, the vector needs very few, preferably single, recognition sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes. More than one site for an enzyme would generate several fragments and complicate the cloning. The site should also lie inside a marker gene so that insertion can be detected (next section).
pBR322 is the vector everybody draws. It is a circular plasmid built for E. coli that carries an ori, two selectable markers, ampR (ampicillin resistance) and tetR (tetracycline resistance), the gene rop that codes for proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid, and unique restriction sites: Hind III, EcoR I, Cla I, BamH I, Sal I, Pvu II, Pst I and Pvu I. The sites BamH I and Sal I lie within tetR; Pst I and Pvu I lie within ampR; Pvu II lies near rop. In the 2025 paper several MCQs asked exactly this: which site to use for cloning into tetracycline resistance (Sal I or BamH I), into ampicillin resistance (Pst I or Pvu I), and near rop (Pvu II). The letters p, B and R in the name stand for plasmid and for Bolivar and Rodriguez, who constructed it; 322 is the laboratory number.
05 9.2.2 (continued) Insertional inactivation, blue–white selection and vectors for plants and animals PYQ 2026 · 2024 · 2019 · 2016
Insertional inactivation with antibiotic markers. Suppose the alien DNA is ligated at the BamH I site of the tetracycline-resistance gene of pBR322. The recombinant plasmid has lost tetracycline resistance because the gene is broken by the insert, but it still carries ampicillin resistance. Now plate the transformed E. coli on a medium with ampicillin: every cell carrying a plasmid, recombinant or not, grows; cells without a plasmid die. Then transfer the colonies onto a plate with tetracycline. Recombinants grow on ampicillin but not on tetracycline; non-recombinants grow on both. So one antibiotic selects transformants, and the second distinguishes recombinants from non-recombinants. The drawback, and NCERT says so, is that selection is cumbersome because it needs simultaneous plating on two plates with different antibiotics.
A better marker: β-galactosidase. The alternative is to insert the recombinant DNA inside the coding sequence of the enzyme β-galactosidase (the lacZ gene). If the plasmid has no insert, the gene is intact and, in the presence of a chromogenic substrate, the bacteria give blue coloured colonies. If the insert is present, β-galactosidase is inactivated by insertional inactivation and the colonies produce no colour: these white colonies are the recombinants. This is called blue–white selection, and it differentiates recombinants from non-recombinants on one plate, by colour. That single-step, single-plate identification is why the 2019 paper called it a 'better selectable marker' and asked you to justify it.
Vectors for cloning genes in plants and animals. Nature did the first experiments. Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of several dicot plants, delivers a piece of DNA called T-DNA (from its Ti plasmid) into plant cells; the T-DNA transforms normal cells into a tumour and directs the tumour cells to produce chemicals the pathogen needs. Likewise retroviruses in animals transform normal cells into cancerous cells. Biotechnologists have disarmed both: the tumour-inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium is modified so that it no longer causes disease but still delivers genes of interest into plant cells, and retroviruses are disarmed so that they deliver desirable genes into animal cells without causing cancer. That is why Agrobacterium is called a natural genetic engineer of plants.
Once a gene has been ligated into a suitable vector, the whole construct is transferred into the host: bacteria, plant cells or animal cells. The host must be ready to take DNA in, which is the next section.
06 9.2.3 Competent Host (for transformation with recombinant DNA) PYQ 2026 · 2025 · 2024 · 2019 · 2013
DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, and hydrophilic molecules cannot pass through cell membranes. So a bacterium will not simply take up a plasmid from its surroundings; it has to be made competent, that is, capable of taking up DNA. This is done by treating the cells with a specific concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium (Ca2+), which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall.
The recombinant DNA is then forced into such cells by a temperature routine you must be able to write in order: incubate the cells with the recombinant DNA on ice, then place them briefly at 42 °C (heat shock), then put them back on ice. The heat shock makes the bacteria take up the DNA. This calcium-chloride and heat-shock method is the standard way of transforming E. coli, and the 2024 five-mark question asked for exactly these points: why competence is needed, the calcium-ion treatment and the heat-shock sequence.
Since it is not always possible to get a cell to take up DNA this way, other methods deliver DNA directly into the host, and a 2-mark question routinely asks for two of them:
- Micro-injection: the recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell with a fine needle.
- Biolistics or gene gun: cells, mostly plant cells, are bombarded with high-velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
- Disarmed pathogen vectors: the pathogen (for example Agrobacterium) infects the cell and in doing so transfers the recombinant DNA into the host.
Keep the host examples straight because the paper does: micro-injection is for animal cells, the gene gun is for plant cells, calcium-heat shock is for bacteria, and Agrobacterium is for dicot plants. Whatever the route, once the DNA is inside, a vector with an ori replicates it and a selectable marker lets you find the cells that got it.
07 9.3.1 Processes of rDNA technology: isolation of the genetic material (DNA) PYQ 2026 · 2025 · 2024 · 2019 · 2014
Section 9.3 walks through recombinant DNA technology as a sequence of steps, and NCERT lists them in one sentence you should memorise: isolation of DNA, fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases, isolation of a desired DNA fragment, ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector, transferring the recombinant DNA into the host, culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale, and extraction of the desired product. The sections then take these one at a time.
To cut DNA with a restriction enzyme it must be in pure form, free from other macromolecules. DNA is enclosed within membranes, so the cell has to be opened first, and the enzyme used depends on the wall to be broken. This is one of the most reliable 1-mark questions in the paper:
- Lysozyme for bacteria.
- Cellulase for plant cells.
- Chitinase for fungi (including yeast).
Breaking the cell releases DNA along with RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and lipids, so the mixture is cleaned in stages. RNA is removed by treatment with ribonuclease; proteins are removed by treatment with protease; other molecules are removed by appropriate treatments. The 2019 paper asked why proteases are added, and the answer is that histones and other proteins bound to DNA and the enzymes released on lysis would otherwise contaminate, and possibly degrade, the DNA.
Finally the purified DNA is precipitated by the addition of chilled ethanol. Precipitated DNA can be seen as a collection of fine threads in the suspension, which can be spooled out on a glass rod. Every board answer on 'isolation of DNA' should contain these five words: lysozyme/cellulase/chitinase, ribonuclease, protease, chilled ethanol, fine threads.
Remember why the genome is such a difficult starting material: DNA molecules are very long and the gene of interest is a tiny fraction of them. Chapter 9 gives you two answers to that problem, cutting with restriction enzymes (next section) and amplifying by PCR (section 9.3.3).
08 9.3.2 Cutting of DNA at specific locations and joining to the vector PYQ 2026 · 2025 · 2019 · 2014
Restriction enzyme digestion is done by incubating the purified DNA with the chosen restriction enzyme under the optimal conditions of temperature and pH for that enzyme. The progress of the digestion is checked by agarose gel electrophoresis: an uncut plasmid, a linearised plasmid and a mixture of fragments all run differently, so a small sample of the reaction on a gel tells you whether the cut is complete. Since DNA is negatively charged, it moves towards the positive electrode, and the fragments resolve by size as described in section 9.2.1.
The same procedure is done on the vector DNA, with the same restriction enzyme. That point matters. Because both the source DNA and the vector are cut with one enzyme, every end produced carries the same sticky end, and a fragment of the source DNA can pair by base complementarity with the opened vector. The joining of the cut-out gene of interest to the cut vector is done with DNA ligase, which forms phosphodiester bonds between the sugar–phosphate backbones. The product is recombinant DNA.
NCERT's flow diagram of recombinant DNA technology is a 3-mark question in itself, and it appeared as a fill-the-blanks figure in the 2025 paper. Reproduce it in words: a bacterial plasmid vector and a foreign DNA containing the gene of interest are both cut with the same restriction enzyme, producing sticky ends; the pieces are mixed and joined by DNA ligase to give a recombinant plasmid; the recombinant plasmid is introduced into a bacterial host by transformation; the host multiplies, and because the vector carries an ori the recombinant DNA is copied along with it; a selectable marker lets you pick out the transformed cells.
A separation step sits between cutting and ligation. After digestion, the mixture contains many fragments, and only the one carrying the gene is wanted. It is separated by gel electrophoresis, the band is eluted, and then the pure fragment is ligated to the cut vector. Some boards' answers describe the gene of interest being 'isolated' before ligation; they mean this elution step.
Two terminology cautions. DNA ligase joins the two DNA molecules covalently; the sticky ends only hold them together temporarily by hydrogen bonds until ligase acts. And the bond formed by ligase is a phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides on the same strand, not a hydrogen bond and not a glycosidic bond, a distinction the 2026 Assertion–Reason item tested.
09 9.3.3 Amplification of the gene of interest using PCR PYQ 2026 · 2025 · 2019 · 2017 · 2015
PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. It makes multiple copies of a gene (or any segment of DNA) in vitro, using two sets of primers and the enzyme DNA polymerase. Primers are small, chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA flanking the segment to be copied; one primer binds each strand. The enzyme extends the primers using the nucleotides (dNTPs) provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA as template. Each cycle of the reaction has three steps, and the 5-mark answer needs all three with their purpose:
- Denaturation. The double-stranded DNA is heated to a high temperature (about 94 °C) so that the hydrogen bonds break and the two strands separate. Each strand can now act as a template.
- Annealing. The temperature is lowered (typically to 50–65 °C, depending on the primers) so that the two primers base-pair with their complementary sequences on the two separated strands, one at each end of the target segment.
- Extension (polymerisation). The temperature is raised to the optimum of the polymerase (about 72 °C) and the enzyme extends each primer in the 5′→3′ direction, adding nucleotides complementary to the template.
After one cycle there are two copies of the segment; after two cycles four; after n cycles about 2n. Repeated over about 30 cycles this amplifies the segment approximately a billion times, that is, about 1 billion copies from a single template.
The enzyme cannot be ordinary DNA polymerase, because the denaturation step would destroy it every cycle. So PCR uses a thermostable DNA polymerase isolated from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus, called Taq polymerase, which remains active during the high-temperature denaturation of the double-stranded DNA. This is the answer to 'why a thermostable polymerase, and from where', asked for 2 marks in 2025 and for 5 marks in 2017 and 2019 as 'describe the roles of heat, primers and the bacterium Thermus aquaticus in PCR'.
The amplified fragment can then be ligated into a vector for further cloning, which is where PCR joins the recombinant DNA workflow. In Chapter 10 you will meet PCR again as a diagnostic tool: it can detect a pathogen's DNA or a mutated gene when the amount of DNA is far too small to see by other means. When drawing the PCR figure, show the template being denatured, the two primers annealing at opposite ends on opposite strands, and Taq polymerase extending each primer, repeated for the second cycle to show four molecules.
10 9.3.4 Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell or organism PYQ 2026 · 2025 · 2024
There are several ways to introduce the ligated DNA into recipient cells, and section 9.2.3 covered them: calcium-chloride treatment and heat shock for bacteria, micro-injection for animal cells, the gene gun for plant cells, and disarmed pathogens like Agrobacterium. Whichever route is used, the recipient cells are first made competent, that is, able to take up the DNA present in their surroundings.
The important new idea in this section is how you know the DNA went in. NCERT's example: if a recombinant DNA bearing the gene for ampicillin resistance is transferred into E. coli cells, the host cells become transformed into ampicillin-resistant cells. If the transformed cells are spread on agar plates containing ampicillin, only the transformants grow; untransformed cells die. In this case, since the ampicillin-resistance gene was used to pick out the cells that received the DNA, it is being used as a selectable marker.
Read that carefully, because the paper asks it as an Assertion–Reason item: the antibiotic in the plate is not there to kill contaminants, it is the selection itself. A gene that lets a cell survive under a condition that kills all others is a selectable marker; the ampicillin plate is the selection condition.
Two small but examinable distinctions follow. A transformant is any cell that has taken up the vector; a recombinant is a transformant whose vector carries the insert. Selecting transformants needs one marker (grow on ampicillin); distinguishing recombinants from non-recombinants needs a second signal, either a second antibiotic gene inactivated by the insert or the β-galactosidase colour test. In an exam you will sometimes be given a plate diagram and asked which colonies to pick; the recombinant colonies are the ones that grow on ampicillin but not on tetracycline, or the white ones on a blue–white plate.
Once the transformed host has been selected, it can be grown up. The host's own replication machinery copies the vector, and its transcription and translation machinery can express the gene, which takes us to the product.
11 9.3.5 Obtaining the foreign gene product: expression and bioreactors PYQ 2026 · 2025 · 2019 · 2018 · 2015
The purpose of cloning a gene is usually the protein it codes for. After cloning, the gene has to be expressed, that is, transcribed and translated in the host, and the protein it makes is called a recombinant protein. Cells carrying the cloned gene are grown on a small scale in the laboratory and the culture is used to extract the protein and purify it. But small-volume cultures cannot yield appreciable quantities of product, so to produce in large amounts, bioreactors were developed. A bioreactor is a vessel in which large volumes (100 to 1000 litres) of culture can be processed; raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes and so on, using microbial, plant, animal or human cells.
A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product: optimum temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins and oxygen. The most commonly used bioreactors are of the stirring type. A stirred-tank reactor is usually cylindrical or has a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the contents. The stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the reactor. Alternatively, air can be bubbled through the reactor; a reactor with such an air inlet (a sparger) is the sparged stirred-tank bioreactor, and it is the one you should be able to draw and label.
List the components as NCERT does, because the 3-mark question is often 'name the components and their functions': an agitator (stirrer) system, an oxygen delivery system, a foam control system, a temperature control system, a pH control system, and sampling ports so that small volumes of the culture can be withdrawn periodically for testing.
Bioreactors can be run in batch mode, where the medium is loaded, the culture grows and everything is harvested, or as a continuous culture system. In the continuous system, the used medium is drained out from one side while fresh medium is added from the other, keeping the cells in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase. This gives a larger biomass and a higher yield of the product, and 'how and why is a continuous culture maintained' was a 3-mark question in 2019.
The NCERT exercise also asks what advantages a stirred-tank bioreactor has over a shake flask besides aeration and mixing. Write: large volume, precise and automatic control of temperature and pH, controlled oxygen delivery, foam control, aseptic operation, and sampling ports for monitoring without disturbing the culture.
12 9.3.6 Downstream processing PYQ 2026 · 2025
Growing the culture is the upstream half of the job. After the biosynthetic stage is complete, the product has to be taken through a series of processes before it is ready for marketing as a finished product. These processes are collectively called downstream processing, and they consist of two main things: separation of the product from the culture (cells, medium and debris) and purification of the product to the required standard.
The purified product then has to be formulated with suitable preservatives so that it stays stable during storage. In the case of drugs, the formulation has to undergo thorough clinical trials before it can be used on patients, exactly as any new medicine must. And strict quality control testing is required for each product, batch by batch.
NCERT ends the chapter with one sentence you should keep: the downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product. An enzyme for a detergent, an insulin for injection and a vaccine for a child are separated, purified, formulated and tested to very different standards. That variation is the reason the section is short in the book and yet turns up in the 5-mark bioreactor question as 'what happens after the product is made'.
For a 2-mark answer, write four steps in order: separation of the product from the culture, purification, formulation with preservatives, and quality control (with clinical trials for drugs). For the flow-of-the-chapter question, downstream processing is the last box after 'culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale'. In Chapter 10 the recombinant insulin story picks up from here: the A and B chains made in E. coli are extracted, purified and combined, and that combination is the downstream step for that product.
A final check on vocabulary that separates full marks from partial marks in this chapter: 'transformation' is introducing DNA into a host; 'cloning' is making many copies; 'expression' is making the protein; 'downstream processing' is everything after the culture. Use each word for its own step and the answer reads like the marking scheme.
VocabularyKey terms
Keep this on one pageFacts and values to remember
| Name | Expression | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Two core techniques of modern biotechnology | Genetic engineering (altering DNA/RNA and introducing it into a host) + maintenance of a sterile ambience in chemical engineering processes | 2-mark staple; also list the three steps: identification, introduction, maintenance and transfer to progeny |
| First recombinant DNA | 1972, Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer; antibiotic-resistance gene from a Salmonella typhimurium plasmid joined to a native plasmid with DNA ligase; transferred to E. coli | name both scientists, the year and the organism |
| Restriction enzyme history and numbers | 1963: two enzymes restricting phage growth in E. coli (one methylates, one cuts); Hind II = first sequence-specific restriction endonuclease, 6-bp site; today > 900 enzymes from > 230 bacterial strains | MCQ facts |
| Naming of EcoR I | E = Escherichia (genus), co = coli (species), R = strain RY 13, I = first isolated from that strain | 3 marks with the cut site drawn |
| EcoR I recognition site and cut | 5′-G↓AATTC-3′ / 3′-CTTAA↑G-5′; cut between G and A on both strands; sticky ends with 5′ AATT overhangs | the palindrome reads the same 5′→3′ on both strands |
| Gel electrophoresis facts | DNA is negatively charged → moves to the anode; matrix = agarose (from sea weeds); sieving effect, smaller fragments move farther; stain ethidium bromide + UV → bright orange bands; elution | 1 to 5 marks in every paper |
| Cloning vector features | ori (starts replication, controls copy number) + selectable marker (ampR, tetR, cmR, kanR, lacZ) + single cloning sites | copy number: some plasmids 1–2, others 15–100 per cell |
| pBR322 map | ori; ampR with Pst I and Pvu I; tetR with BamH I and Sal I; rop (replication proteins) with Pvu II nearby; Hind III, EcoR I, Cla I | draw a circle, mark all of these |
| Insertional inactivation in pBR322 | Insert at BamH I (tetR) → recombinant grows on ampicillin, not on tetracycline; non-recombinant grows on both | cumbersome: needs two plates |
| Blue–white selection | Insert within lacZ (β-galactosidase) + chromogenic substrate → white colonies = recombinant; blue = non-recombinant | one plate, one step; hence 'better selectable marker' |
| Natural genetic engineers | Agrobacterium tumefaciens (Ti plasmid, T-DNA → dicot plant cells, tumour); retroviruses (animal cells → cancer); both used disarmed | 3-mark question |
| Making a host competent | Divalent cation (Ca2+) treatment → incubate with rDNA on ice → 42 °C heat shock, briefly → ice | DNA is hydrophilic and cannot cross the membrane on its own |
| Direct DNA delivery | Micro-injection (nucleus of animal cell); biolistics/gene gun (plant cells, gold or tungsten particles coated with DNA); disarmed pathogen vectors | 2-mark 'name two methods' |
| DNA isolation enzymes | Lysozyme (bacteria), cellulase (plant), chitinase (fungus); ribonuclease removes RNA; protease removes proteins; chilled ethanol precipitates DNA as fine threads | 1-mark MCQs every year |
| PCR | Denaturation (≈94 °C) → annealing of two primers (≈50–65 °C) → extension by Taq polymerase (≈72 °C); ≈2n copies after n cycles; ≈ a billion copies | Taq = thermostable DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus |
| Bioreactor | 100–1000 L; stirred-tank (cylindrical/curved base), sparged version bubbles air; components: agitator, O2 delivery, foam control, temperature control, pH control, sampling ports | continuous culture keeps cells in the log phase |
| Downstream processing | Separation → purification → formulation with preservatives → clinical trials (drugs) → strict quality control | varies from product to product |
Practise with a pencilDiagrams that earn marks
EcoR I recognition sequence and the formation of sticky ends (NCERT Fig. 9.1 style)
Draw two parallel DNA strands with the top strand labelled 5′ on the left and 3′ on the right, and the bottom strand 3′ on the left and 5′ on the right. Write G A A T T C on the top and C T T A A G below, base-paired. Draw a vertical arrow between G and A on the top strand and between A and G on the bottom strand (staggered, a little away from the centre), labelled 'EcoR I cuts here'. Below, redraw the two separated pieces showing the single-stranded 5′-AATT overhang on each, labelled 'sticky ends'. A caption stating that the sequence is palindromic (reads GAATTC 5′→3′ on both strands) completes the marks.
Steps in the formation of recombinant DNA by EcoR I (NCERT Fig. 9.2 style)
On the left draw a circular plasmid vector and on the right a straight foreign DNA, each with a GAATTC site marked. Show EcoR I cutting both (arrows) so that the plasmid opens into a linear piece with AATT sticky ends and the foreign DNA gives a fragment with matching sticky ends. Below, draw the fragment slotting into the opened plasmid with the sticky ends paired, then a circle labelled 'DNA ligase joins the ends' and the final circular recombinant plasmid with the insert shaded. Label: vector, foreign DNA, EcoR I, sticky ends, DNA ligase, recombinant DNA.
Agarose gel electrophoresis of DNA fragments (NCERT Fig. 9.3 style)
Draw a rectangular gel slab in a tank with wells along the top edge; mark the top electrode as cathode (−) and the bottom as anode (+). Draw three or four lanes with bands: an arrow pointing down labelled 'direction of DNA movement (towards anode)'. In each lane put larger bands near the wells and smaller bands farther down, labelled 'largest fragment' and 'smallest fragment'. Add a lane labelled 'marker DNA (known sizes)'. Write a note that the gel is stained with ethidium bromide and viewed under UV, giving bright orange bands, and mark one band as 'cut out for elution'.
E. coli cloning vector pBR322 (NCERT Fig. 9.4 style)
Draw a large circle. Mark 'ori' at the bottom left. Shade two arcs as genes: 'ampR' on the left-lower side and 'tetR' on the right-upper side, and a smaller arc 'rop' at the lower right. Place the restriction sites as short ticks with names: Hind III, EcoR I and Cla I together at the top (near the start of tetR); BamH I and Sal I inside tetR; Pvu II near rop; Pst I and Pvu I inside ampR. Write 'pBR322' in the centre. The examiner checks ori, both resistance genes, rop, and at least four correctly placed sites.
Polymerase chain reaction (NCERT Fig. 9.6 style)
Draw a double-stranded DNA at the top labelled 'template DNA'. Step 1: heat (about 94 °C), the two strands drawn apart, labelled 'denaturation'. Step 2: two short primers drawn annealed at opposite ends of the two strands, labelled 'annealing of primers (50–65 °C)'. Step 3: arrows extending from each primer with 'Taq DNA polymerase, extension (72 °C), dNTPs'. Show the result as two double-stranded molecules, then a bracket 'cycle repeated' leading to four molecules. Label the primers, the thermostable polymerase and the direction of synthesis 5′→3′.
Simple stirred-tank bioreactor (NCERT Fig. 9.7a style)
Draw a tall cylinder with a curved base. At the top a motor connected to a central shaft carrying paddle-shaped impellers inside the vessel, labelled 'motor' and 'stirrer/impeller (agitator)'. A jacket around the vessel labelled 'cooling jacket / temperature control'. Inlets at the top for 'acid/base (pH control)' and 'medium/nutrients'; an 'air exhaust' at the top; a probe labelled 'pH and temperature probes'; a 'foam breaker' near the surface; a 'sampling port' on the side; a 'product outlet' at the bottom. Shade the lower part as 'culture broth'.
Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor (NCERT Fig. 9.7b style)
Draw the same cylinder as above and add a 'sparger' at the bottom, a ring or tube with small holes, connected to an 'air inlet' pipe entering from the side; draw small bubbles rising from it through the broth. Keep the motor, impeller, foam breaker, cooling jacket, pH/temperature probes, acid/base and nutrient inlets, sampling port, air exhaust and product outlet. Label 'sterile air bubbled through the sparger' and note that this improves oxygen availability.
Flow diagram of recombinant DNA technology
Draw a linear flow of boxes joined by arrows: 'Isolation of DNA (lysozyme/cellulase/chitinase, ribonuclease, protease, chilled ethanol)' → 'Cutting with restriction endonuclease' → 'Separation of fragments by gel electrophoresis and elution' → 'Amplification by PCR (optional)' → 'Ligation into vector with DNA ligase → recombinant DNA' → 'Transformation into competent host (Ca2+, heat shock)' → 'Selection of transformants and recombinants (selectable marker)' → 'Culturing in bioreactor, expression of the gene' → 'Downstream processing: separation, purification, formulation, quality control'. Put the tool used beside each arrow; the examiner gives marks for the correct order and for naming the enzyme at each step.
Insertional inactivation and blue–white selection
Draw two petri plates. Plate 1 labelled 'ampicillin': draw many colonies. Plate 2 labelled 'tetracycline' with the same colony positions but some missing; label the missing positions 'recombinants (tetR inactivated by insert at BamH I)' and the present ones 'non-recombinants'. Beside them draw a third plate labelled 'chromogenic substrate' with shaded (blue) colonies marked 'no insert, β-galactosidase active' and open (white) colonies marked 'insert within lacZ, recombinant'. Two lines of caption explaining each plate secure the marks.
TextbookNCERT questions the board keeps asking
9.1 Can you list 10 recombinant proteins which are used in medical practice? Find out where they are used therapeutically.3 m
Recombinant proteins made by expressing a cloned human or other gene in a host cell, and their use:
- Insulin (humulin): treatment of diabetes mellitus.
- Human growth hormone: treatment of dwarfism (growth hormone deficiency).
- Erythropoietin: treatment of anaemia, especially in kidney failure.
- Interferon-α: treatment of hepatitis B and C and some cancers.
- Factor VIII: treatment of haemophilia A.
- Factor IX: treatment of haemophilia B.
- Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA): dissolving blood clots after a heart attack or stroke.
- Hepatitis B surface antigen: the recombinant hepatitis B vaccine.
- Interleukin-2: treatment of some cancers, such as kidney cancer.
- DNase I: treatment of cystic fibrosis (thins the mucus).
- Streptokinase (recombinant form): clot buster in myocardial infarction.
- Adenosine deaminase (ADA): enzyme replacement therapy for ADA deficiency (SCID).
Any ten of these are accepted; insulin, growth hormone, interferon, erythropoietin, factor VIII and the hepatitis B vaccine are the ones the examiner most expects.
9.2 Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) showing a restriction enzyme, the substrate DNA on which it acts, the site at which it cuts DNA and the product it produces.3 m
Restriction enzyme: EcoR I (from Escherichia coli strain RY 13).
Substrate: double-stranded DNA containing the recognition sequence.
Recognition site (palindrome):
5′-G A A T T C-3′
3′-C T T A A G-5′
Site of cut: between G and A on both strands, a little away from the centre of the palindrome:
5′-G↓A A T T C-3′
3′-C T T A A↑G-5′
Products: two fragments, each with a single-stranded 5′ overhang AATT, called sticky ends. Left fragment: top strand ends ...G-3′, bottom strand ends ...CTTAA-5′ (overhang AATT reading 5′→3′). Right fragment: top strand begins 5′-AATTC..., bottom strand begins 3′-G... The two AATT overhangs are complementary to each other and to any other EcoR I sticky end.
The chart should be drawn as a table with four columns (enzyme, substrate, cut site, product) and the DNA sequences written in each. Because the same sticky ends are produced wherever the enzyme cuts, fragments from two different DNA sources cut with EcoR I can be joined by DNA ligase, which is the basis of making recombinant DNA. The same layout can be repeated for Hind III (5′-A↓AGCTT-3′) and BamH I (5′-G↓GATCC-3′).
9.3 From what you have learnt, can you tell whether enzymes are bigger or DNA is bigger in molecular size? How did you know?2 m
DNA is far bigger than an enzyme. Enzymes are proteins, and even a large enzyme is made of a few hundred to a few thousand amino acids; a restriction enzyme such as EcoR I is a dimer of about 276 amino acids per subunit. A DNA molecule, on the other hand, is a polymer of millions of nucleotides: the single circular chromosome of E. coli has about 4.6 × 106 base pairs, and a single human chromosome carries tens to hundreds of millions of base pairs. Even a small plasmid like pBR322 has 4361 base pairs, and a gene of about 1000 base pairs, which codes for a protein of about 330 amino acids, is only a tiny fraction of the DNA it sits in.
We can tell this from the chapter itself: a restriction enzyme 'inspects' the length of a DNA molecule, moving along it until it finds its six-base-pair recognition sequence, and a single DNA molecule is cut by many enzyme molecules into many fragments. A molecule that travels along another and cuts it at many places must be much smaller than the molecule it travels on. Also, the DNA of a cell has to be tightly packaged with proteins to fit inside the nucleus (Chapter 5), which again shows how enormous the DNA is compared with the proteins.
9.4 What would be the molar concentration of human DNA in a human cell? Consult your teacher.2 m
Molar concentration = number of moles of the substance ÷ volume of the solution. A diploid human cell has 46 chromosomes, and each chromosome is one DNA molecule, so a cell contains 46 DNA molecules.
Number of moles of DNA = 46 ÷ (6.022 × 1023) ≈ 7.6 × 10−23 mol.
The volume of a typical human cell is of the order of 10−12 L (about 1 picolitre; a 10 μm cube is 10−15 m3 = 10−12 L).
Molar concentration ≈ 7.6 × 10−23 mol ÷ 10−12 L ≈ 7.6 × 10−11 M, that is, of the order of 10−10 mol L−1.
Check: 46 molecules in 1 pL is 4.6 × 1013 molecules per litre; dividing by Avogadro's number, 4.6 × 1013 ÷ 6.022 × 1023 ≈ 7.6 × 10−11 M. The value is extremely small, which is why molecular biologists amplify the DNA by PCR or clone it before they can work with it. (If the concentration of nucleotides rather than molecules is asked, the human diploid genome has about 6.6 × 109 base pairs, i.e. 1.3 × 1010 nucleotides, which gives about 2 × 10−2 M nucleotides in the same volume.)
9.5 Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases? Justify your answer.2 m
No, eukaryotic cells do not have restriction endonucleases. Restriction endonucleases are a defence system of bacteria (prokaryotes) against invading bacteriophage DNA: the enzyme cuts the phage DNA at its recognition sequences, restricting phage growth, while the bacterium protects its own DNA by methylating those sequences with a companion modification enzyme.
Eukaryotes do not need this system; they are not infected by bacteriophages, and their own DNA is protected in the nucleus and packaged with histones. Also, eukaryotic DNA contains a large number of palindromic sequences of the kind restriction enzymes recognise; if a eukaryotic cell made such enzymes, its own genome would be cut to pieces, and eukaryotic DNA is generally not methylated in a way that would protect it from every restriction enzyme. All the more than 900 known restriction enzymes have been isolated from over 230 strains of bacteria, and none from a eukaryote, which supports the answer.
9.6 Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantages do stirred tank bioreactors have over shake flasks?3 m
A shake flask holds a small volume and is shaken on a platform; it gives little control over conditions. A stirred-tank bioreactor has these advantages in addition to better aeration and mixing:
- Large volume: 100 to 1000 litres of culture can be processed, so appreciable quantities of product are obtained.
- Temperature control: a cooling jacket and temperature probe keep the culture at its optimum.
- pH control: acid and base inlets and a pH probe adjust pH automatically.
- Controlled oxygen delivery: sterile air is bubbled in through a sparger at a set rate.
- Foam control: a foam breaker prevents foam from blocking the exhaust and contaminating the culture.
- Sampling ports: small volumes can be withdrawn periodically for monitoring without opening the vessel, keeping the culture aseptic.
- Continuous operation: used medium can be drained while fresh medium is added, keeping cells in the log phase for higher yield.
Together these give a reproducible, sterile, monitored process suited to producing recombinant proteins at commercial scale.
9.7 Collect 5 examples of palindromic DNA sequences by consulting your teacher. Better try to create a palindromic sequence by following base-pair rules.2 m
A palindromic DNA sequence reads the same on both strands in the 5′→3′ direction. Five examples, each the recognition site of a restriction enzyme:
- 5′-GAATTC-3′ / 3′-CTTAAG-5′ (EcoR I)
- 5′-AAGCTT-3′ / 3′-TTCGAA-5′ (Hind III)
- 5′-GGATCC-3′ / 3′-CCTAGG-5′ (BamH I)
- 5′-GTCGAC-3′ / 3′-CAGCTG-5′ (Sal I)
- 5′-CTGCAG-3′ / 3′-GACGTC-5′ (Pst I)
Additional ones: 5′-CAGCTG-3′ (Pvu II), 5′-ATCGAT-3′ (Cla I), 5′-GTPyPuAC-3′ (Hind II, where Py = C or T and Pu = A or G).
Creating one. Write any sequence for the first half, say 5′-CGT. Its complement is 3′-GCA. For a palindrome the second half must be the complement of the first half read backwards, so the second half is ACG. The full top strand is 5′-CGTACG-3′; pair each base to get the bottom strand 3′-GCATGC-5′; read the bottom strand 5′→3′ and it is CGTACG, the same as the top. The rule: take any sequence, write its reverse complement, and append it.
9.8 Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is made?2 m
In meiosis, recombinant DNA is formed naturally during prophase I, in the sub-stage pachytene, when crossing over takes place. Homologous chromosomes pair during zygotene to form bivalents held together by the synaptonemal complex; at pachytene, non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes exchange segments at chiasmata, catalysed by the enzyme recombinase. The exchange of genetic material between the two homologues produces chromatids carrying a new combination of alleles, which is recombinant DNA in the natural sense. The chiasmata become visible at diplotene and the recombined chromosomes separate at anaphase I.
In the laboratory, recombinant DNA is made in a similar spirit but by design: a DNA fragment from one source is joined to a vector using restriction enzymes and DNA ligase. Both natural crossing over and laboratory recombination produce DNA molecules whose sequence combines genetic material from two different sources.
9.9 Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker?3 m
A reporter enzyme is an enzyme whose gene is placed in the vector so that its activity, and not merely the survival of the cell, tells us whether the foreign DNA has entered and, better still, whether it has been inserted at the cloning site. The standard reporter is β-galactosidase, coded by the lacZ gene.
The cloning site is placed within the coding sequence of lacZ. Cells are plated on a medium containing a chromogenic substrate (a colourless compound that the enzyme converts into a blue product). If the vector has no insert, lacZ is intact, β-galactosidase is made, and the colony turns blue. If the foreign DNA has been inserted within lacZ, the gene is broken (insertional inactivation), no enzyme is made, and the colony stays white. So the reporter enzyme distinguishes recombinants (white) from non-recombinants (blue) on a single plate, in one step, by colour.
The selectable marker (say ampR) is still needed to remove cells that took up no vector at all: the plate also contains ampicillin, so cells without a plasmid do not grow. The two work together: the selectable marker selects transformants, and the reporter enzyme reports which transformants are recombinants. Other reporter enzymes used in the same way are green fluorescent protein (GFP), which fluoresces, and β-glucuronidase (GUS) in plants, which gives a blue product.
9.10 Describe briefly the following: (a) Origin of replication (b) Bioreactors (c) Downstream processing3 m
(a) Origin of replication (ori): a specific DNA sequence in a vector (or chromosome) from which replication starts. Any piece of DNA linked to an ori can be made to replicate within the host cell. The ori also controls the copy number of the linked DNA, so a vector is chosen with an ori that gives the copy number wanted. Alien DNA without an ori is not copied and is lost from the host.
(b) Bioreactors: vessels in which large volumes (100 to 1000 litres) of culture are processed to convert raw materials biologically into specific products, enzymes and so on, using microbial, plant, animal or human cells. They provide optimum conditions of temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins and oxygen. The most common type is the stirred-tank bioreactor, cylindrical or curved-based, with a stirrer for mixing and oxygen distribution; in the sparged version air is bubbled in. A bioreactor has an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, a foam control system, temperature and pH control systems and sampling ports for periodic withdrawal of culture.
(c) Downstream processing: the series of processes a product is put through after the biosynthetic stage before it can be marketed. It includes separation of the product from the culture and its purification; the product is then formulated with suitable preservatives, drug formulations undergo thorough clinical trials, and every product is subjected to strict quality control testing. The exact steps vary from product to product.
9.11 Explain briefly: (a) PCR (b) Restriction enzymes and DNA (c) Chitinase3 m
(a) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): a technique for making multiple copies of a gene or DNA segment in vitro. It uses the template DNA, two sets of primers (short synthetic oligonucleotides complementary to the regions flanking the target), a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus) and the four deoxynucleotides. Each cycle has three steps: denaturation of the double-stranded DNA by heat (about 94 °C), annealing of the primers to the separated strands at a lower temperature, and extension of the primers by Taq polymerase at about 72 °C. Repeating the cycle about 30 times amplifies the segment about a billion times. The thermostable enzyme is essential because it survives the repeated high-temperature denaturation.
(b) Restriction enzymes and DNA: restriction endonucleases are bacterial enzymes that cut DNA at specific positions. Each enzyme inspects a DNA molecule, binds to its specific recognition sequence, which is a palindrome (for EcoR I, 5′-GAATTC-3′), and cuts each strand in its sugar–phosphate backbone a little away from the centre of the palindrome, leaving single-stranded sticky ends. Since a given enzyme produces the same sticky ends on any DNA, fragments of vector and foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme can be joined by DNA ligase to make recombinant DNA. Restriction enzymes are therefore the 'molecular scissors' of genetic engineering. Exonucleases, by contrast, remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA.
(c) Chitinase: an enzyme that digests chitin, the polysaccharide of the fungal cell wall. In recombinant DNA technology it is used to break open fungal (including yeast) cells to release their DNA during the isolation of genetic material, just as lysozyme is used for bacteria and cellulase for plant cells.
9.12 Discuss with your teacher and find out how to distinguish between (a) Plasmid DNA and Chromosomal DNA (b) RNA and DNA (c) Exonuclease and Endonuclease3 m
(a) Plasmid DNA vs chromosomal DNA: plasmid DNA is a small, circular, extra-chromosomal DNA of bacteria that replicates autonomously with its own ori, may be present in many copies per cell (1–2 to 15–100 or more), carries a few non-essential genes such as antibiotic resistance, and can be transferred between cells; it is used as a cloning vector. Chromosomal DNA is the single large circular (in bacteria) or linear (in eukaryotes) genome, present in one copy per cell in bacteria, carries all the essential genes, and in eukaryotes is packaged with histones inside the nucleus.
(b) RNA vs DNA: RNA has the sugar ribose (with a 2′-OH) and the base uracil in place of thymine, is usually single-stranded, is less stable (the 2′-OH makes it reactive and easily degraded) and is found as mRNA, tRNA and rRNA; it is removed during DNA isolation by ribonuclease. DNA has deoxyribose (2′-H) and thymine, is double-stranded and helical, is chemically and structurally more stable, and is the genetic material; it is removed by deoxyribonuclease.
(c) Exonuclease vs endonuclease: an exonuclease removes nucleotides one at a time from the ends (5′ or 3′) of a DNA molecule; it does not need a specific sequence. An endonuclease cuts within the DNA molecule, and a restriction endonuclease does so only at a specific recognition sequence, producing fragments; endonucleases such as EcoR I are used in recombinant DNA technology.
Previous years and frequently askedBoard questions with model answers
MCQ DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with- Acetocarmine and viewing in visible light
- Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation
- Safranin followed by exposure to infrared radiation
- Methylene blue followed by exposure to X-rays
Frequently asked1 m
MCQ To release the DNA from a fungal cell during the isolation of genetic material, the cell wall is digested with the enzyme- Lysozyme
- Cellulase
- Chitinase
- Protease
Frequently asked1 m
MCQ In pBR322, an alien DNA is to be inserted so that it inactivates the tetracycline-resistance gene. Which restriction site should be used?- Pst I
- Pvu I
- Sal I
- Pvu II
Frequently asked1 m
MCQ The first restriction endonuclease, Hind II, was found to recognise a specific sequence of- Four base pairs
- Six base pairs
- Eight base pairs
- Twelve base pairs
Frequently asked1 m
MCQ The thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR is isolated from- Escherichia coli
- Thermus aquaticus
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens
- Salmonella typhimurium
Frequently asked1 m
MCQ Which of the following is not a feature of plasmids?- Circular DNA
- Autonomous replication
- Single-stranded DNA
- Extra-chromosomal
Frequently asked1 m
MCQ During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments- move towards the cathode, and larger fragments move farther
- move towards the anode, and smaller fragments move farther
- move towards the anode, and larger fragments move farther
- do not move unless they are positively charged
Frequently asked1 m
MCQ In the name of the restriction enzyme EcoR I, the letter 'R' stands for- The genus Escherichia
- The species coli
- The strain RY 13
- The order of isolation
Frequently asked1 m
MCQ The plant pathogen that naturally delivers T-DNA into dicot cells and has been converted into a cloning vector is- Bacillus thuringiensis
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens
- Thermus aquaticus
- Rhizobium leguminosarum
Frequently asked1 m
Assertion–Reason Assertion (A): EcoR I produces sticky ends when it cuts DNA. Reason (R): EcoR I cuts the DNA a little away from the centre of its palindromic recognition sequence, between the same two bases (G and A) on the opposite strands.- Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
- Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- A is true but R is false
- A is false but R is true
Frequently asked1 m
Assertion–Reason Assertion (A): Bacterial cells are treated with a specific concentration of calcium ions before transformation. Reason (R): DNA is a hydrophilic molecule and cannot pass through the cell membrane on its own.- Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
- Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- A is true but R is false
- A is false but R is true
Frequently asked1 m
Assertion–Reason Assertion (A): DNA ligase joins the vector and the foreign DNA fragment. Reason (R): DNA ligase forms hydrogen bonds between the complementary bases of the sticky ends.- Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
- Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- A is true but R is false
- A is false but R is true
Frequently asked1 m
Assertion–Reason Assertion (A): An alien piece of DNA introduced into a host cell must be linked to an origin of replication. Reason (R): DNA that is not part of a chromosome or not linked to an ori cannot replicate in the host and is lost.- Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
- Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- A is true but R is false
- A is false but R is true
Frequently asked1 m
Assertion–Reason Assertion (A): In a continuous culture bioreactor, used medium is drained from one side while fresh medium is added from the other. Reason (R): This keeps the cells in their physiologically most active log phase and gives a higher yield.- Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
- Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- A is true but R is false
- A is false but R is true
Frequently asked1 m
Very short answer Write the recognition sequence of the restriction endonuclease EcoR I and state how it cuts the DNA. What are palindromic sequences?Frequently asked2 m
EcoR I recognises the sequence
5′-G A A T T C-3′
3′-C T T A A G-5′
It cuts each strand between G and A, a little away from the centre of the palindrome, producing single-stranded overhangs (sticky ends) of AATT on each fragment. (1 mark)
A palindromic sequence is a sequence of base pairs that reads the same on the two strands when the orientation of reading is kept the same, for example GAATTC read 5′→3′ on both strands. (1 mark)
Very short answer Name the source of the thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR. Why is a thermostable polymerase used?Frequently asked2 m
Source: the bacterium Thermus aquaticus; the enzyme is called Taq polymerase. (1 mark)
Each PCR cycle begins with denaturation of the double-stranded DNA at a high temperature (about 94 °C). An ordinary DNA polymerase would be destroyed in this step and would have to be added afresh every cycle. Taq polymerase remains active during the high-temperature denaturation, so the reaction can run through repeated cycles automatically and amplify the DNA about a billion times. (1 mark)
Very short answer Name two methods by which recombinant DNA can be directly introduced into a host cell without making the cell competent. Mention the type of host cell for each.Frequently asked2 m
(i) Micro-injection: the recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell using a fine glass needle. (1 mark)
(ii) Biolistics (gene gun): plant cells are bombarded with high-velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with the DNA. (1 mark)
(A third, also accepted: disarmed pathogen vectors such as Agrobacterium, which infect the plant cell and transfer the recombinant DNA.)
Very short answer State the role of 'ori' and 'restriction sites' in the cloning vector pBR322.Frequently asked2 m
ori (origin of replication): the sequence from which replication of the plasmid starts; any alien DNA linked to it is replicated inside the host. It also controls the copy number of the linked DNA. (1 mark)
Restriction (cloning) sites: single recognition sites for restriction enzymes (EcoR I, BamH I, Sal I, Pst I, Pvu I and others) at which the vector is cut so that the alien DNA can be ligated in. Sites within a marker gene (BamH I or Sal I in tetR, Pst I or Pvu I in ampR) allow recombinants to be identified by insertional inactivation. (1 mark)
Very short answer How is a bacterial cell made competent to take up recombinant DNA? Describe the temperature treatment that follows.Frequently asked2 m
The bacterial cells are treated with a specific concentration of a divalent cation such as calcium (Ca2+), which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the cell through pores in its cell wall. (1 mark)
The competent cells are incubated with the recombinant DNA on ice, then placed briefly at 42 °C (heat shock), and then put back on ice. The heat shock forces the DNA into the cells. (1 mark)
Very short answer What is elution? Why is agarose used as the matrix in gel electrophoresis?Frequently asked2 m
Elution is the process of cutting out a separated DNA band from the agarose gel and extracting the DNA fragment from the gel piece, so that the purified fragment can be used for constructing recombinant DNA. (1 mark)
Agarose, a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds, forms a porous gel that acts as a sieve: DNA fragments moving through it towards the anode are resolved by size, the smaller fragments moving farther. (1 mark)
Short answer Explain the convention followed in naming the restriction enzyme EcoR I. Draw the recognition site and show how the enzyme cuts the DNA.Frequently asked3 m
Naming: the first letter comes from the genus and the next two from the species of the bacterium from which the enzyme was isolated; then the strain; then a Roman numeral for the order of isolation. So EcoR I: E = Escherichia, co = coli, R = strain RY 13, I = first enzyme isolated from that strain. (1½ marks)
Recognition site and cut:
5′-G↓A A T T C-3′
3′-C T T A A↑G-5′
The site is a palindrome. EcoR I cuts between G and A on both strands, a little away from the centre, leaving single-stranded 5′-AATT overhangs (sticky ends) that can pair with the complementary sticky ends of any other DNA cut by the same enzyme and be joined by DNA ligase. (1½ marks)
Short answer The enzyme β-galactosidase is considered a better selectable marker than antibiotic resistance genes in pBR322. Justify.Frequently asked3 m
With antibiotic markers (say the insert at BamH I of tetR): transformants are selected on an ampicillin plate, and then the colonies have to be transferred to a tetracycline plate. Recombinants grow on ampicillin but not on tetracycline; non-recombinants grow on both. The selection needs simultaneous plating on two plates with different antibiotics, which is cumbersome. (1½ marks)
With β-galactosidase (the lacZ gene): the cloning site lies within the coding sequence of the enzyme. Cells are plated once on a medium with a chromogenic substrate. If the plasmid has no insert, the enzyme is made and the colonies are blue; if the insert is present, β-galactosidase is inactivated (insertional inactivation) and the colonies are white. Recombinants are identified in one step, on one plate, simply by colour, with no second antibiotic plate. Hence it is the better selectable marker. (1½ marks)
Short answer Draw a labelled diagram of a sparged stirred-tank bioreactor and state the function of any two of its components.Frequently asked3 m
Diagram: a cylindrical vessel with a curved base; a motor at the top driving a central shaft with impellers (stirrer); a sparger (air inlet) at the bottom releasing bubbles; a foam breaker near the surface; a cooling jacket around the vessel; pH and temperature probes; inlets for acid/base and nutrients; a sampling port on the side; an air exhaust at the top and a product outlet at the bottom. (2 marks for a labelled sketch)
Functions (any two): the stirrer (agitator system) mixes the contents evenly and distributes oxygen throughout the reactor; the sparger bubbles sterile air through the culture to supply oxygen; the foam breaker controls foam; the cooling jacket and probes maintain the optimum temperature and pH; the sampling port lets small volumes be withdrawn periodically to monitor the culture. (1 mark)
Short answer Describe the steps of isolation of DNA from a plant cell for use in recombinant DNA technology. Why are ribonuclease and protease added?Frequently asked3 m
(i) The plant cell is broken open by treating it with cellulase, which digests the cellulose cell wall, so that the DNA is released along with RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and lipids. (1 mark)
(ii) Ribonuclease is added to remove RNA and protease to remove proteins, because DNA must be pure and free from other macromolecules before a restriction enzyme can cut it; RNA and proteins (including DNA-bound proteins and enzymes released from the cell) would contaminate the DNA and interfere with digestion. Other molecules are removed by appropriate treatments. (1 mark)
(iii) The purified DNA is precipitated by adding chilled ethanol; it appears as a collection of fine threads in the suspension and can be spooled out. (1 mark)
Short answer Why is Agrobacterium tumefaciens called a natural genetic engineer of plants? How has it been made useful as a cloning vector?Frequently asked3 m
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of several dicot plants. It carries a tumour-inducing (Ti) plasmid, and during infection it delivers a piece of this plasmid, the T-DNA, into the plant cell, where it integrates into the plant genome. The T-DNA transforms normal plant cells into a tumour (crown gall) and directs the tumour cells to produce the chemicals the bacterium needs. Because it transfers genes into plant cells naturally, it is called a natural genetic engineer. (1½ marks)
Biotechnologists have disarmed the Ti plasmid: the tumour-causing genes are removed so that it no longer causes disease, but the T-DNA border sequences that direct transfer are kept. A gene of interest placed between these borders is delivered by the bacterium into plant cells and integrated into their DNA. This is how most transgenic dicot plants, such as Bt cotton lines, are made. (1½ marks)
Short answer State the principle of gel electrophoresis. How are the separated DNA fragments visualised and how is a fragment of interest recovered for use?Frequently asked3 m
Principle: DNA fragments carry a negative charge, so in an electric field they move towards the anode through a matrix of agarose (a natural polymer from sea weeds). The gel acts as a sieve and the fragments separate (resolve) according to size: the smaller the fragment, the farther it moves. (1½ marks)
Visualisation: the gel is stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to UV radiation; the DNA appears as bright orange coloured bands. (½ mark)
Recovery: the band of interest is cut out of the gel and the DNA is extracted from the gel piece (elution). The purified fragment is then used to construct recombinant DNA by ligating it into a vector. (1 mark)
Long answer Describe the roles of heat, primers and the bacterium Thermus aquaticus in the process of PCR. Draw a diagram to show the steps of one cycle.Frequently asked5 m
PCR (polymerase chain reaction) makes multiple copies of a DNA segment in vitro. Each cycle has three steps:
- Denaturation: the double-stranded template DNA is heated to about 94 °C. Heat breaks the hydrogen bonds and separates the two strands, each of which then serves as a template. This is the role of heat. (1 mark)
- Annealing: the temperature is lowered (about 50–65 °C) so that the two primers, small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides complementary to the sequences flanking the target on the two strands, base-pair to their sites. Primers provide the free 3′-OH from which DNA polymerase can start synthesis; polymerase cannot begin on a bare template. (1 mark)
- Extension: at about 72 °C the thermostable DNA polymerase extends each primer in the 5′→3′ direction using the deoxynucleotides in the mixture, producing two double-stranded copies. (1 mark)
Role of Thermus aquaticus: it is the source of the thermostable Taq DNA polymerase. Because the enzyme remains active during the high-temperature denaturation step, it does not have to be added fresh every cycle and the reaction can be repeated automatically about 30 times, amplifying the segment about a billion times. The amplified DNA can then be ligated into a vector for cloning. (1 mark)
Diagram: template DNA → strands separated by heat (denaturation) → two primers annealed at opposite ends on opposite strands → Taq polymerase extending each primer (extension) → two copies; arrow 'repeat' → four copies. (1 mark)
Long answer Draw a schematic diagram of the E. coli cloning vector pBR322 and mark the origin of replication, the genes for antibiotic resistance, rop and any four restriction sites. State the role of rop and explain how the antibiotic resistance genes act as selectable markers through insertional inactivation.Frequently asked5 m
Diagram: a circle marked pBR322 with: ori at the lower left; ampR on the left arc containing the Pst I and Pvu I sites; tetR on the right arc containing the BamH I and Sal I sites; rop at the lower right with Pvu II near it; and Hind III, EcoR I and Cla I at the top. (2 marks)
rop: codes for the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid. (½ mark)
Selectable markers: ampR and tetR confer resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. Normal E. coli cells carry no resistance, so a cell that grows on an antibiotic must have received the plasmid; this helps identify and eliminate non-transformants and selectively allows transformants to grow. (1 mark)
Insertional inactivation: if the alien DNA is ligated at the BamH I (or Sal I) site of tetR, that gene is broken and the recombinant plasmid loses tetracycline resistance while keeping ampicillin resistance. The transformed cells are plated on ampicillin, where all cells carrying a plasmid grow; the colonies are then transferred to a tetracycline plate. Recombinants grow on ampicillin but not on tetracycline, whereas non-recombinants grow on both. Thus one antibiotic selects transformants and the second distinguishes recombinants. (1½ marks)
Long answer (a) Why must a bacterial cell be made competent before transformation? Describe the method by which E. coli is made competent and transformed with recombinant DNA. (b) State the principle of gel electrophoresis and the role of ethidium bromide.Frequently asked5 m
(a) DNA is a hydrophilic molecule and cannot pass through the cell membrane on its own, so the host must first be made competent, that is, able to take up DNA from its surroundings. (1 mark)
Method: the bacterial cells are treated with a specific concentration of a divalent cation such as calcium, which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the cell through pores in the cell wall. The competent cells are incubated with the recombinant DNA on ice, then placed briefly at 42 °C (heat shock), and then returned to ice. The heat shock forces the DNA into the cells. Transformed cells are then identified by plating on a medium containing the antibiotic to which the vector carries resistance; only transformants grow. (2 marks)
(b) Principle: DNA fragments are negatively charged and move towards the anode through an agarose gel under an electric field; the gel provides a sieving effect so that the fragments separate according to size, the smaller fragments moving farther. (1½ marks)
Ethidium bromide: the separated DNA is invisible; the gel is stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to UV radiation, and the DNA is then seen as bright orange coloured bands, which can be cut out and eluted. (½ mark)
Long answer Describe the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology, from the isolation of DNA to the recovery of the product, naming the tool or enzyme used at each step.Frequently asked5 m
- Isolation of DNA: cells are opened with lysozyme (bacteria), cellulase (plant) or chitinase (fungus); RNA is removed with ribonuclease and proteins with protease; DNA is precipitated with chilled ethanol as fine threads. (1 mark)
- Cutting at specific sites: the purified DNA and the vector are digested with the same restriction endonuclease (e.g. EcoR I) under optimum conditions, giving fragments with matching sticky ends. The progress of digestion is checked, and the fragment of interest separated and eluted, by agarose gel electrophoresis. (1 mark)
- Amplification: if required, the gene of interest is amplified by PCR using two primers and Taq polymerase (from Thermus aquaticus) through cycles of denaturation, annealing and extension. (½ mark)
- Ligation into the vector: the fragment is joined to the cut vector (e.g. pBR322, which has an ori, selectable markers and cloning sites) by DNA ligase, giving recombinant DNA. (½ mark)
- Insertion into the host: the host is made competent with calcium ions and heat shock (or DNA is delivered by micro-injection, gene gun or a disarmed Agrobacterium); transformants are selected on an antibiotic plate and recombinants identified by insertional inactivation or blue–white selection. (1 mark)
- Obtaining the product: the recombinant host is cultured on a large scale in a stirred-tank bioreactor under optimum temperature, pH, oxygen and nutrients, often as a continuous culture, so that the gene is expressed and the recombinant protein made. (½ mark)
- Downstream processing: the product is separated and purified, formulated with preservatives, put through clinical trials if it is a drug, and subjected to quality control. (½ mark)
Case-based Read the passage and answer the questions. A student is given the map of pBR322. She wants to clone a gene into the plasmid and pick out the bacterial colonies that carry the recombinant plasmid. She cuts both the gene and the plasmid with BamH I, ligates them, transforms competent E. coli cells, and spreads the cells on a plate containing ampicillin. Next day she transfers each colony to a fresh plate containing tetracycline.
(i) Why did she cut the gene and the plasmid with the same enzyme?
(ii) Which gene of pBR322 is inactivated by inserting at BamH I?
(iii) Which colonies on the tetracycline plate are the recombinants, and why?
(iv) Name an alternative marker that would let her identify recombinants on a single plate, and state how.Frequently asked4 m
(i) Cutting both with BamH I gives the same sticky ends on the gene and on the opened plasmid, so the two can base-pair and be joined by DNA ligase. (1 mark)
(ii) BamH I lies within the tetracycline-resistance gene (tetR), which is inactivated by the insert (insertional inactivation). (1 mark)
(iii) The colonies that grew on ampicillin but fail to grow on tetracycline are the recombinants, because their tetR gene has been broken by the insert; non-recombinants, with an intact plasmid, grow on both plates. (1 mark)
(iv) β-galactosidase (the lacZ gene). If the cloning site lies within lacZ, then on a plate with a chromogenic substrate colonies without an insert are blue and colonies with the insert (recombinants) are white, so recombinants are identified by colour on one plate. (1 mark)
Case-based Read the passage and answer the questions. A forensic laboratory receives a tiny sample of DNA from a crime scene, far too little to analyse directly. The technician sets up a reaction containing the sample, two short synthetic oligonucleotides, a DNA polymerase from a bacterium that lives in hot springs, and the four deoxynucleotides, and runs 30 cycles in a thermal cycler in which the temperature goes to 94 °C, then to 55 °C, then to 72 °C in each cycle.
(i) Name the technique and the enzyme used, with its source.
(ii) What happens at 94 °C and why can the enzyme survive it?
(iii) What is the function of the two oligonucleotides, and at which temperature do they act?
(iv) Approximately how many copies of the DNA segment are obtained after the 30 cycles?Frequently asked4 m
(i) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The enzyme is Taq DNA polymerase, a thermostable DNA polymerase from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus. (1 mark)
(ii) At 94 °C the double-stranded DNA is denatured: the hydrogen bonds break and the strands separate, each serving as a template. Taq polymerase is thermostable and remains active at this temperature, so it is not destroyed in each cycle. (1 mark)
(iii) The oligonucleotides are primers. They are complementary to the regions flanking the target segment, one on each strand, and they anneal to the separated strands at 55 °C; the polymerase then extends them at 72 °C. (1 mark)
(iv) The number of copies roughly doubles each cycle, 230 ≈ 109, so about a billion copies of the segment are made, enough to analyse. (1 mark)
Test yourselfPractice quiz
Marks lost every yearCommon mistakes
- Writing the EcoR I site without the 5′ and 3′ labels, or cutting it in the middle. The cut is between G and A on both strands, a little away from the centre, and the palindrome must be shown reading GAATTC 5′→3′ on both strands.
- Saying DNA moves towards the cathode, or that larger fragments move farther. DNA is negatively charged and moves towards the anode, and the sieving effect of agarose lets the smaller fragments move farther.
- Mixing up the pBR322 sites: Pst I and Pvu I are in ampR, BamH I and Sal I in tetR, Pvu II near rop. Also calling rop a selectable marker; it codes for replication proteins.
- Reversing the two-plate result. Recombinants (insert in tetR) grow on ampicillin but not on tetracycline; non-recombinants grow on both; cells with no plasmid grow on neither.
- Swapping the cell-wall enzymes: lysozyme for bacteria, cellulase for plants, chitinase for fungi. And writing 'ethanol' without 'chilled', or forgetting that ribonuclease and protease remove RNA and protein.
- Describing PCR without primers, or with the steps in the wrong order, or naming E. coli as the source of the polymerase. The enzyme is Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus, and the order is denaturation, annealing, extension.
- Calling ethidium bromide a 'dye seen in visible light' or saying the bands are green or blue. The stained gel is exposed to UV and the bands are bright orange.
- Writing 'heat shock' without 42 °C or without the ice steps, and forgetting to say why competence is needed: DNA is hydrophilic and cannot cross the membrane.
- Answering the bioreactor question with a diagram but no components, or listing fermentation as downstream processing. Downstream processing is separation, purification, formulation and quality control after the culture.
How to prepareStrategy for this chapter
This chapter is small in pages but large in marks per page, and almost every question is one of about ten set pieces. Prepare it as ten answers you can write from memory, each with its diagram: (1) the two core techniques and three steps of genetic modification, (2) EcoR I naming and the cut palindrome, (3) gel electrophoresis from principle to elution, (4) the pBR322 map with ori, ampR, tetR, rop and the sites, (5) insertional inactivation on two plates and blue–white selection on one, (6) Agrobacterium and retroviruses as disarmed vectors, (7) competent cells with calcium and 42 °C heat shock plus micro-injection and the gene gun, (8) DNA isolation with the three wall enzymes, ribonuclease, protease and chilled ethanol, (9) PCR with the three steps, primers and Taq, and (10) the sparged stirred-tank bioreactor with its six components, continuous culture and downstream processing.
Draw every diagram at least three times before the exam: the EcoR I cut, the pBR322 circle, the gel, the PCR cycle and the bioreactor. Boards reward a neat, fully labelled figure even when the prose is short. Write labels in NCERT's words.
For 1-mark items, make a fact card of numbers and names: 1963, Hind II and six base pairs, more than 900 enzymes from over 230 strains, 1972 Cohen and Boyer, 15–100 copies, 100–1000 litres, 42 °C, Thermus aquaticus, a billion copies. For 2-mark items, practise pairs: ori and cloning site, exonuclease and endonuclease, transformant and recombinant, micro-injection and biolistics.
Time allocation on the day: the 5-mark question from this unit is usually PCR, pBR322 or the bioreactor. Spend eight to nine minutes on it, with the diagram first, then the numbered points. Read Chapter 10 alongside this one; the paper often sets a case that begins with a technique from here and ends with an application from there.